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Which of the following is the function of a totipotent cell?  

A. Fights infectious diseases.

B. Aids in the maturation of sex cells.

C. Carries electrical impulses.

D. Develops into any kind of cell.

Answer Explanation:

A totipotent cell can self-renew by dividing and develop into the three primary germ cell layers of the early embryo and into extra-embryonic tissues such as the placenta.

A fertilized egg is a totipotent stem cell and as such can develop into any specialized cell found in the organism.

Choice A is not correct because totipotent cells do not fight infectious diseases.

Choice B is not correct because totipotent cells do not aid in the maturation of sex cells.

Choice C is not correct because totipotent cells do not carry electrical impulses.

 

Therefore, the Correct Answer is D.

More Questions on TEAS 7 Science

  • Q #1: Which of the following microorganisms lack their own metabolic pathways and can only reproduce inside of a host cell?

    A. Bacteria

    B. Protozoa

    C. Helminths

    D. Viruses

    Answer Explanation

    Viruses.

    Viruses lack essential machinery needed to reproduce by themselves.

    In fact, viruses can only reproduce after infecting a living cell - a process called viral replication.

    Once inside a living cell, viruses re-program the cell’s machinery to produce viral proteins and genetic material to make new copies of themselves.

     

    Choice A, Bacteria, is not the correct answer because bacteria have their own metabolic pathways and can reproduce outside of a host cell.

    Choice B, Protozoa, is also not the correct answer because protozoa are singlecelled eukaryotes that have their own metabolic pathways and can reproduce outside of a host cell.

    Choice C, Helminths, is not the correct answer because helminths are multicellular parasitic worms that have their own metabolic pathways and can reproduce outside of a host cell.

  • Q #2: Which of the following glands synthesizes antidiuretic hormone?

    A. Pineal gland

    B. Thymus

    C. Hypothalamus

    D. Pancreas

    Answer Explanation

    The hypothalamus is a region of the brain that synthesizes antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin.

    ADH is then transported to the posterior pituitary gland via neurohypophysial capillaries, where it is stored until it is ready to be secreted into the circulation.

     

    Choice A.

    Pineal gland is not correct because it is a small endocrine gland located in the brain that secretes the hormone melatonin, which regulates sleep-wake cycles, but it does not synthesize ADH.

    Choice B.

    Thymus is not correct because it is a gland located in the chest that produces hormones involved in immune system development, but it does not synthesize ADH.

    Choice D.

    Pancreas is not correct because it is a gland located behind the stomach that secretes hormones such as insulin and glucagon, which regulate blood sugar levels, but it does not synthesize ADH.

  • Q #3: Which of the following indicates the function of sodium bicarbonate secreted by the pancreas?

    A. Sodium bicarbonate is a protease that digests carbohydrates.

    B. Sodium bicarbonate stimulates the pyloric sphincter.

    C. Sodium bicarbonate inhibits peristalsis.

    D. Sodium bicarbonate neutralizes the acidity of chyme.

    Answer Explanation

    Sodium bicarbonate neutralizes the acidity of chyme.

    The pancreas secretes large amounts of sodium bicarbonate, which protects the duodenum by neutralizing the acid that comes from the stomach.

    This compound helps neutralize stomach acid generated during the digestive process.

     

    Choice A is incorrect because sodium bicarbonate is not a protease that digests carbohydrates.

    Proteases are enzymes that break down proteins, while sodium bicarbonate is a chemical compound that helps neutralize stomach acid.

    Choice B is incorrect because sodium bicarbonate does not stimulate the pyloric sphincter.

    The pyloric sphincter is a ring of smooth muscle that separates the stomach from the duodenum and regulates the passage of partially digested food (chyme) into the small intestine.

    Choice C is incorrect because sodium bicarbonate does not inhibit peristalsis.

    Peristalsis is a series of wave-like muscle contractions that move food through the digestive tract.

     

  • Q #4: Nitrogen gas is an extremely stable molecule because of which of the following?

    A. Ionic bonds

    B. Hydrogen bonds

    C. Resonance bonds

    D. Triple covalent bonds

    Answer Explanation

    Triple covalent bonds.

    Nitrogen gas (N2) is an extremely stable molecule because it consists of two nitrogen atoms bonded together by a triple covalent bond.

    A covalent bond is a type of chemical bond where atoms share electrons to form a molecule.

    In a triple covalent bond, three pairs of electrons are shared between the two atoms, resulting in a very strong bond that makes the molecule extremely stable.

     

    Choice A.

    Ionic bonds is not correct because ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons from one atom to another to form ions, which are then attracted to each other due to their opposite charges.

    Nitrogen gas does not contain ions and is not held together by ionic bonds.

    Choice B.

    Hydrogen bonds is not correct because hydrogen bonds are weak electrostatic attractions between molecules that contain hydrogen atoms bonded to highly electronegative atoms such as oxygen or nitrogen.

    Nitrogen gas does not contain hydrogen atoms and is not held together by hydrogen bonds.

    Choice C.

    Resonance bonds is not correct because resonance refers to the delocalization of electrons in a molecule where multiple Lewis structures can be drawn to represent the molecule.

    Nitrogen gas has a single Lewis structure and does not exhibit resonance.

  • Q #5: In a hypertonic solution, water flows through aquaporins embedded in the plasma membrane of the cell. This type of transport is best known as which of the following?

    A. Facilitated diffusion

    B. Active transport

    C. Osmosis

    D. Diffusion

    Answer Explanation

    Osmosis is the movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration.

    In a hypertonic solution, the concentration of solutes outside the cell is higher than inside the cell, so water flows out of the cell through aquaporins embedded in the plasma membrane to balance the concentration gradient.

     

    Choice A.

    Facilitated diffusion is not correct because it is a type of passive transport that involves the movement of molecules across a membrane through specific transport proteins, but it does not specifically refer to the movement of water molecules.

    Choice B.

    Active transport is not correct because it is a type of transport that involves the movement of molecules against their concentration gradient and requires energy in the form of ATP, but osmosis is a passive process that does not require energy.

    Choice D.

    Diffusion is not correct because it refers to the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, but it does not specifically refer to the movement of water molecules.

  • Q #6: In a phase diagram, which of the following is the term used for a substance held at a temperature and pressure where the solid, liquid, and gaseous states of a substance exist simultaneously?    

    A. Triple point

    B. Critical temperature

    C. Critical point

    D. Absolute zero

    Answer Explanation

    Triple point.

    In a phase diagram, the term used for a substance held at a temperature and pressure where the solid, liquid, and gaseous states of a substance exist simultaneously is the triple point.

    The triple point is a unique point on a phase diagram where the three states of matter (solid, liquid, and gas) can coexist in equilibrium.

    At the triple point, the temperature and pressure of the substance are fixed.

    Option B, critical temperature, is the temperature at which a gas cannot be liquefied, regardless of the pressure applied.

    It is a characteristic property of a substance and is typically higher than the boiling point of the liquid at standard pressure.

    Option C, critical point, is the point on a phase diagram where the liquid and gas phases of a substance become indistinguishable.

    At the critical point, the distinction between the liquid and gas phases disappears, and the substance becomes a supercritical fluid.

    Option D, absolute zero, is the theoretical temperature at which all matter has zero thermal energy.

    At absolute zero, all substances are in their solid state, but it is not relevant to a phase diagram, as it is a temperature where no transitions between states occur.

    In summary, the term used for a substance held at a temperature and pressure where the solid, liquid, and gaseous states of a substance exist simultaneously in a phase diagram is the triple point, whereas the other options provided are not relevant or are characteristic properties of substances in different contexts.

  • Q #7: Which of the following results in osteoporosis?

    A. An increase in osteocyte activity while osteoclast activity continues at expected levels.

    B. A decline in osteoclast activity while osteoblast activity continues at expected levels.

    C. An increase in osteocyte activity while osteoblast activity reduces.

    D. A decline in osteoblast activity while osteoclast activity continues at expected levels.

    Answer Explanation

    A decline in osteoblast activity while osteoclast activity continues at expected levels results in osteoporosis.

    Osteoporosis is caused by an imbalance between the functioning of osteoclast and osteoblast cells.

    Osteoblasts are responsible for forming new bone, while osteoclasts break down old bone.

    If osteoblast activity declines while osteoclast activity continues at expected levels, this means that more bone is being broken down than is being formed, leading to a loss of bone density and an increased risk of osteoporosis.

    Choice A is incorrect because an increase in osteocyte activity would not result in osteoporosis.

    Osteocytes are mature bone cells that maintain the mineral concentration of the bone matrix.

    Choice B is incorrect because a decline in osteoclast activity would not result in osteoporosis.

    Osteoclasts break down old bone, so a decline in their activity would mean that less bone is being broken down.

    Choice C is incorrect because an increase in osteocyte activity would not result in osteoporosis.

    As mentioned earlier, osteocytes are mature bone cells that maintain the mineral concentration of the bone matrix.

  • Q #8: Which of the following is used to determine a person's DNA sequence? 

    A. Enzymes

    B. Blood types

    C. Hormones

    D. Genes

    Answer Explanation

    Genes are used in the process of DNA sequencing to determine the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.

     

    Choice B.

    Blood types is not the correct answer because blood types are determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells and are not directly related to DNA sequencing.

    Choice C.

    Hormones is not the correct answer because hormones are chemical messengers produced by glands in the body and are not directly involved in DNA sequencing.

    Choice D.

    Genes is the correct answer because genes are used in the process of DNA sequencing to determine the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule.

  • Q #9: A myocardial infarction affects which of the following blood vessels of the heart?  

    A. Coronary

    B. Aorta

    C. Pulmonary

    D. Vena cava

    Answer Explanation

    A myocardial infarction affects the coronary blood vessels of the heart.

    A myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when blood flow decreases or stops in the coronary artery of the heart, causing damage to the heart muscle 1.

     

    Choice B is incorrect because the aorta is not a blood vessel of the heart.

    The aorta is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body.

    Choice C is incorrect because the pulmonary blood vessels are not affected by a myocardial infarction.

    The pulmonary blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs.

    Choice D is incorrect because the vena cava is not a blood vessel of the heart.

    The vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart.

  • Q #10: Which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood?  

    A. Superior vena cava

    B. Inferior vena cava.

    C. Pulmonary artery

    D. Pulmonary vein

    Answer Explanation

    The pulmonary veins are the vessels that carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart.

     

    Choice A is not correct because the superior vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium of the heart.

    Choice B is not correct because the inferior vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the lower body to the right atrium of the heart.

    Choice C is not correct because the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs.