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Which of the following statements about bacteria and archaea is true?

A. A. Bacteria have a true nucleus while archaea do not

B. B. Archaea reproduce by spores while some bacteria reproduce by fission.

C. C. Bacteria can perform photosynthesis while archaea cannot.

D. D. Archaeal and bacterial flagella are constructed similarly.

Answer Explanation:

Bacteria can perform photosynthesis while archaea cannot. Many types of bacteria can generate oxygen from sunlight through photosynthesis, while archaea cannot perform this process.

Choice A is incorrect because neither bacteria nor archaea have a true nucleus. Both are prokaryotic organisms. Choice B is incorrect because archaea reproduce by fission, fragmentation, or budding, while bacteria can produce spores and divide sexually or asexually. Choice D is incorrect because archaeal and bacterial flagella are constructed differently.

Therefore, the Correct Answer is C.

More Questions on TEAS 7 Science

  • Q #1: Which cytotoxic lymphocyte granules contain serine proteases that induce apoptosis in target cells?.

    A. Perforins.

    B. Cytokines.

    C. Granzymes.

    D. Interferons.

    Answer Explanation

    Granzymes.

    Granzymes are a family of serine proteases that are stored in and secreted from the cytotoxic granules of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) and natural killer (NK) cells.

    They work in synergy with perforin, a pore-forming toxin, to induce apoptosis in target cells.

     

    Granzymes in cancer and immunity | Cell Death & Differentiation

     

    Perforin is necessary for the delivery of granzyme B to the target cell cytosol where caspase-dependent and -independent pathways to apoptosis are activated.

    Perforins (choice A) are pore-forming toxins that work in synergy with granzymes to induce apoptosis in target cells.

    Cytokines (choice B) are signaling molecules that regulate immune responses but do not directly induce apoptosis in target cells.

    Interferons (choice D) are a type of cytokine that play a role in immune responses but do not directly induce apoptosis in target cells.

  • Q #2: What is the organelle that encapsulates the contents of the cell and plays a vital role in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell?.

    A. Ribosome

    B. Nucleus

    C. Mitochondria

    D. Plasma membrane.

    Answer Explanation

    The plasma membrane is the organelle that encapsulates the contents of the cell and plays a vital role in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell.

    It is a selectively permeable barrier that separates the internal environment of the cell from the external environment.

     

     

    2,156 Plasma Membrane Images, Stock Photos & Vectors | Shutterstock

     

    Choice A is incorrect because ribosomes are organelles involved in protein synthesis, not in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell.

    Choice B is incorrect because the nucleus is an organelle that contains the cell’s genetic material, not in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell.

    Choice C is incorrect because mitochondria are organelles involved in energy production, not in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell.

  • Q #3: A nurse is caring for a patient who has been declared brain dead and is awaiting organ donation. Which of the following interventions is most important to preserve the viability of the organs?

    A. Administering antibiotics to prevent infection.

    B. Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.

    C. Providing emotional support to the family members.

    D. Applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying.

    Answer Explanation

    The correct answer is choice B.

    Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.

    Early identification and management of potential organ donors must take into consideration specific pathophysiologic changes for medical optimization 1.

    The VIPPS (ventilation, infusion and pumping, pharmacological treatment, and specificities) strategy is a mnemonic method that brings together key aspects of the restoration of oxygen delivery to tissues during hemodynamic instability plus organ optimization strategies.

    Choice A is incorrect because administering antibiotics to prevent infection is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.

    Choice C is incorrect because providing emotional support to family members, while important, is not an intervention that directly affects organ viability.

    Choice D is incorrect because applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.

  • Q #4: Which process involves the fusion of male and female gametes resulting in the formation of a zygote?

    A. Oogenesis.

    B. Fertilization.

    C. Meiosis.

    D. Mitosis.

    Answer Explanation

    Fertilization.

    Fertilization is the process by which male and female gametes fuse to form a zygote.

     
      Zygote Formation From Gametes | How is a Diploid Zygote Formed? - Video &  Lesson Transcript | Study.com

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Oogenesis (choice A) is the process by which female gametes, or eggs, are produced.

    Meiosis (choice C) is a type of cell division that results in the formation of gametes.

    Mitosis (choice D) is a type of cell division that results in the formation of two identical daughter cells.

  • Q #5: Which organ in the human body is responsible for the removal of damaged red blood cells and the production of certain types of white blood cells?

    A. Spleen

    B. Kidneys

    C. Pancreas

    D. Thyroid gland

    Answer Explanation

    The correct answer is choice A.

    The spleen is an organ in the human body that is responsible for the removal of damaged red blood cells and the production of certain types of white blood cells.

    Choice B is incorrect because the kidneys are responsible for filtering waste from the blood and regulating electrolyte balance.

    Choice C is incorrect because the pancreas produces hormones and enzymes that aid in digestion.

    Choice D is incorrect because the thyroid gland produces hormones that regulate metabolism.

  • Q #6: Which hormone is responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development, menstrual cycle, and widening of hips?

    A. Progesterone

    B. Testosterone

    C. Estrogen

    D. FSH

    Answer Explanation

    The correct answer is choice C. Estrogen.

    Estrogen is a steroid hormone responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development, menstrual cycle, and widening of hips.

    Choice A, Progesterone, is not the correct answer because it is required to maintain pregnancy and delivery.

    Choice B, Testosterone, is not the correct answer because it is a hormone produced by the testes which controls the development of male secondary sexual characteristics.

    Choice D, FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone), is not the correct answer because it stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in females and regulates spermatogenesis in males.

  • Q #7: Which type of bond is responsible for the unique properties of water and plays a crucial role in the structure of DNA and proteins?

    A. Hydrogen bonds.

    B. Covalent bonds.

    C. Ionic bonds.

    D. Van der Waals forces.

    Answer Explanation

    The correct answer is choice A. Hydrogen bonds.

    Hydrogen bonds are responsible for the unique properties of water and play a crucial role in the structure of DNA and proteins.

    Hydrogen bonds are weak electrostatic attractions between a hydrogen atom covalently bonded to an electronegative atom and another electronegative atom.

    Choice B.

    Covalent bonds is incorrect because covalent bonds are strong chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms.

    Choice C.

    Ionic bonds is incorrect because ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another, resulting in the formation of ions.

    Choice D.

    Van der Waals forces is incorrect because Van der Waals forces are weak intermolecular forces that arise from temporary dipoles induced in atoms or molecules.

  • Q #8: Which gland, located in the mediastinum, plays a key role in the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes?

    A. Thymus

    B. Parathyroid

    C. Adrenal

    D. Pituitary

    Answer Explanation

    The correct answer is choice A. Thymus.

    The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ located in the mediastinum.

     
      Thymus gland - Mayo Clinic

     

     

    It plays a key role in the maturation and differentiation of T-lymphocytes.

     

    Choice B.

    Parathyroid is incorrect because the parathyroid glands are small endocrine glands located in the neck that produce parathyroid hormone, which regulates calcium levels in the blood.

    Choice C.

    Adrenal is incorrect because the adrenal glands are endocrine glands located above the kidneys that produce hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline.

    Choice D.

    Pituitary is incorrect because the pituitary gland is an endocrine gland located at the base of the brain that produces hormones that regulate growth, metabolism, and reproductive functions.

  • Q #9: Which of the following is true regarding the role of oncogenes in cancer development?

    A. Mutations in oncogenes always result in the inhibition of cell division.

    B. Oncogenes are only found in human cells and not in any other organism.

    C. Genes that regulate cell division are not found in any viruses.

    D. Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.

    Answer Explanation

    The correct answer is choice D.

    Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.

    Oncogenes are mutated genes that can contribute to the development of cancer.

    Oncogene - Wikipedia

    In their non-mutated state, everyone has genes which are referred to as proto- oncogenes.

    When proto-oncogenes are mutated or increased in numbers due to DNA damage, the proteins produced by these genes can affect the growth, proliferation, and survival of the cell, and potentially result in the formation of a malignant tumor.

    Choice A is incorrect because mutations in oncogenes do not always result in the inhibition of cell division.

    Instead, they can contribute to the development of cancer by affecting cell growth.

    Choice B is incorrect because oncogenes are not only found in human cells but can be present in other organisms as well.
    Choice C is incorrect because genes that regulate cell division can be found in viruses.

  • Q #10: Which of the following allows a limited range of immune cells to detect and respond rapidly to a wide range of pathogens that share common structures?

    A. Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

    B. Cytokines

    C. Chemokines

    D. T cells .

    Answer Explanation

    Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) are a class of receptors that can directly recognize the specific molecular structures on the surface of pathogens.

    PRRs play a crucial role in the proper function of the innate immune system and are germline-encoded host sensors, which detect molecules typical for the pathogens.

     
      What are Pattern Recognition Receptors- CUSABIO

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    Choice B is incorrect because cytokines are not receptors but rather signaling molecules that regulate immunity.

    Choice C is incorrect because chemokines are not receptors but rather signaling molecules that attract immune cells to sites of infection.

    Choice D is incorrect because T cells are not receptors but rather white blood cells that assist B cells or directly kill infected cells.